SBI PO EXAM-2013 SOLVED PAPER

SBI PO EXAM-2013 SOLVED PAPER

PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS- SBI PO 2013

STATE BANK OF INDIA –SBI has released notification for the post of Probationary Officers. The written examination will be held on June, 2015. For detailed advertisement click here- http://allexamtips.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/05/sbipo-rectruitment-advertisement.pdf

We suggest the aspirants to start preparation for the Probationary Officers Exam 2015 right after they complete their application process so that they can cover the complete syllabus few days before the examination.

For preparing the SBI Probationary Officers exam 2015, one must go through previous year question papers with utmost sincerity. This will be highly helpful for the candidates in assessing-

  • The pattern of examination for Probationary Officers Exam.
  • Type of questions being asked from different subjects and topics and then prepare accordingly for the upcoming exams.
  • Practising the previous year papers will help them in time management during the exam.
  • Candidates can assess their level of preparation in comparison to the actual exam.

Find below the Previous Year Question Paper Reasoning Ability of SBI Probationary Officers Exam 2013:-

Reasoning Ability

(Held on 28-4-2013)

Directions (1-5): Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions:

  1. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression R > O = A > S < T as definitely true?

(1) O > T (2) S < R (3) T > A (4) S = O (5) T < R

  1. Which of the following symbols should replace the questions mark (?) in the given expression in order to make the expression ‘P > A’ as well as ‘T L’ definitely true?

P > L ? A N = T

(1) (2) < (3) < (4) (5) Either or <

  1. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given such a manner that makes the expressions ‘B>N’ as well as ‘D L’ definitely true?

B_____L_____O____N_____D

(1) =, =, , (2) >, , =, > (3) >, <, =, (4) >, =, =, (5) >, =, , >

  1. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression ‘A < P’ definitely false?

____ < ___ < ___ > ___

(1) L, N, P, A (2) L, A, P, N (3) A, L, P, N (4) N, A, P, L (5) P, N, A, L

  1. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression ‘F > N’ and ‘U > D’ definitely true?

F__O__U__N__D

(1) <, <, >, = (2) <, =, =, > (3) <, =, =, < (4) , =, =, > (5) >, >, =, <

Directions (6-10): Study the following and answer the following questions:

A, B, C, D, E, G and I are seven friends who study in three different standards namely 5th, 6th and 7th such that not less than two friends study in the same standard. Each friend also has a different favorite subject namely History, Civics, English, Marathi, Hindi, Maths and Economics but not necessarily in the same order.

A likes Math and studies in the 5th standard with only one other friend who likes Marathi. I studies with two other friends. Both the friends who study with I like languages (Here languages include only Hindi, Marathi and English). D Studies in the 6th standard with only one person and does not like civics. E studies with only one friend. The one who likes history does not study in 5th or 6th standard. E does not like languages. C does not like English, Hindi or Civics.

  1. Which combination represents E’s favourite subject and the standard in which he studies?

(1) Civics and 7th (2) Economics and 5th (3) Civics and 6th (4) History and 7th (5) Economics and 7th

  1. Which of the following is I’s favourite subject?

(1) History (2) Civics (3) Marathi (4) Either English or Marathi (5) Either English or Hindi

  1. Which of the following is definitely correct?

(1) G (2) C (3) E (4) D (5) Either D or B

  1. Which of the following is definitely correct?

(1) I and Hindi (2) G and English (3) C and Marathi (4) B and Hindi (5) E and Economics

  1. Which of the following subjects does G like?

(1) Either Maths or Marathi (2) Either Hindi or English (3) Either Hindi or Civics (4) Either Hindi or Marathi (5) Either Civics or Economics

Direction: Study the information and answer the following questions:

In a certain code language- ‘economics is not money’ is written as ‘ka la ho ga’ ‘demand and supply economics’ is written as, ‘mo ta pa ka’ ‘money makes only part’ is written as, ‘zi la ne ki’ ‘demand makes supply economics’ is written as, ‘zi mo ka ta

  1. What is the code for ‘money’ in the given code language?

(1) ga (2) mo (3) pa (4) ta (5) la

  1. What is the code for ‘supply’ in the given code language?

(1) only ta (2) only mo (3) either pa or mo (4) only pa (5) either mo or ta

  1. What is the code for ‘demand only more’ in the given code language?

(1) xi ne mo (2) mo zi ne (3) ki ne mo (4) mo zi ki (5) xi ka ta

  1. What may be the possible code for ‘work and money’ in the given code language?

(1) pa ga la (2) pa la tu (3) mo la pa (4) tu la ga (5) pa la ne

  1. What is the code for ‘makes’ in the given code language?

(1) mo (2) pa (3) ne (4) zi (5) ho

Directions: Study the given information and answer the following questions:

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement: (All the numbers are two digit numbers)

Input: 40 made butter 23 37 cookies salt extra 52 86 92 fell now 19

Step I: butter 19 40 made 23 37 cookies salt extra 52 86 92 fell now

Step II: cookies 23 butter 19 40 make 37 salt extra 52 86 92 fell now

Step III: extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 40 made salt 52 86 92 fell now

Step IV: fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 made salt 52 86 92 now

Step V: made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 salt 86 92 now

Step VI: now 86 made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 salt 92

Step VII: salt 92 now 86 made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19

Step VII is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out he appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 32 proud girl beautiful 48 55 97 rich family 61 72 17 nice life

  1. How many steps will be required to complete the given input?

(1) Five (2) Six (3) Seven (4) Eight (5) Nice

  1. Which of the following is the third element from the left end of step VI?

(1) beautiful (2) life (3) 61 (4) Nice (5) 17

  1. Which of the following is step III of the given input?

(1) proud 72 girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 55 97 rich 61 nice life

(2) life 55 girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 proud 97 rich 61 72 nice

(3) girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 proud girl 48 55 97 rich 61 72 nice life

(4) family 32 beautiful 17 proud girl 48 55 97 rich 61 72 nice life

(5) girl 48 life 55 family 32 beautiful 17 proud 97 rich 61 72 nice

  1. What is the position of ‘nice’ from the left end in the final step?

(1) Fifth (2) Sixth (3) Seventh (4) Eight (5) Ninth

  1. Which element is third to the right of ‘family’ in Step V?

(1) beautiful (2) 17 (3) Proud (4) 97 (5) 32

Directions: Read the information carefully and answer the following questions:

If A + B means A is the father of B If A × B means A is the sister of B If A $ B means A is the wife of B If A % B means A is the mother of B If A ÷ B means A is the son of B

  1. What should come in place of the question mark, to establish that J is the brother of T in the expression?

J ÷ P % H ? T % L

(1) × (2) ÷ (3) $ (4) Either ÷ or × (5) Either + or ÷

  1. Which among the given expression indicate the M is the daughter of D?

(1) L % R $ D + T × M (2) L + R $ D + M × T (3) L % R % D + T ÷ M (4) D + L $ R × M + T (5) L $ D ÷ R % M ÷ T

  1. Which among the following options is true if the expression ‘ I + T % J × L ÷ K’ is definitely true?

(1) L is the daughter of T (2) K is the son-in-law of I (3) I is the grandmother of L (4) T is the father of J (5) J is the brother of L

  1. Which among the following expression of true if Y is the son of X is definitely false?

(1) W % L × T × Y ÷ X (2) W + L × T × Y ÷ X (3) X + L × T × Y ÷ W (4) W $ X + L + Y + T (5) W % X + T × Y ÷ L

  1. What should come in place of the question mark, to establish that T is the sister-in-law of Q in the expression?

R % T × P ? Q + V

(1) ÷ (2) % (3) × (4) $ (5) Either $ or ×

Directions: Study the following information and answer the questions given below:

Eight people- E, F, G, H, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each of them is of a different profession – Charted Accountant, Columnist, Doctor, Engineer, Financial Analyst, Lawyer, Professor and Scientist but not necessarily in the same order. F is sitting second to the left of K. the Scientist is an immediate neighbour of K. there are only three people between the Scientist and E only one person sits between the Engineer and E. The Columnist is to the immediate right of the Engineer. M is second to the right of K. H is the Scientist. G and J are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither G nor J is an Engineer. The Financial Analyst is to the immediate left of F. The Lawyer is second to the right of the Columnist. The Professor is an immediate neighbor of the Engineer. G is second to the right of the Chartered Account.

  1. Who is sitting second to the right of E?

(1) The Lawyer (2) G (3) The Engineer (4) F (5) K

  1. Who amongst the following is the Professor?

(1) F (2) L (3) M (4) K (5) J

  1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(1) Chartered Account – H (2) M – Doctor (3) J – Engineer (4) Financial Analyst – L (5) Lawyer – K

  1. What is the position of L with respect to the Scientist?

(1) Third to the left (2) Second to the right (3) Second to the left (4) Third to the right (5) Immediate right

  1. Which of the following statements is true according to the given arrangement?

(1) The Lawyer is second to the left of the doctor (2) E is an immediate neighbor of the Financial Analyst (3) H sits exactly between F and the Financial Analyst (4) Only four people sit between the Columnist and F (5) All of the given statement are true

Directions: In each of the questions below, two/three/ statements are given followed by conclusions/group of conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume all the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given two conclusions logically follows from the information given in the statements.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows Give answer (3) if either I or II follows Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follow Give answer (5) if both I and II follow

31-32. Statements:

Some squares are circles. No circle is a triangle. No line is a square.

  1. Conclusions:
  2. All squares can never be triangles. II. Some lines are circles.
  3. Conclusions:
  4. No triangle is a square. II. No line is a circle.

33-34. Statements:

All songs are poems. All poems are rhymes.

No rhyme is a paragraph.

  1. Conclusions:
  2. No song is a paragraph. II. No poem is a paragraph.
  3. Conclusions:
  4. All rhymes are poems. II. All songs are rhymes.
  5. Statements:

Some dews are drops. All drops are stones.

Conclusions:

  1. Atleast some dews are stones. II. Atleast some stones are drops.

Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and—

Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the questions. Give answer (4) if the data neither in statement I nor II together are sufficient to answer the questions. Give answer (5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the questions.

  1. Seventeen people are standing in a straight line facing south. What is Bhavna’s positon from the left end of the line?

(1) Sandeep is standing second to the left of Sheetal. Only five people stand between Sheetal and the one who is standing at the extreme right end of the live. Four people stand between Sandeep and Bhavna. (2) Anita is standing fourth to the left of Sheetal. Less than three people are standing between Bhavna and Anita.

  1. Five letters – A, E, G, N and R are arranged to right according to certain conditions. Which letter is placed third?
  2. G is placed second to the right of A. E is to the immediate right of G. there are only two letters between R and G. II. N is exactly between A and G. Neither A nor G is at the extreme end of the arrangement.
  3. Six people – S, T, U, V, W and X are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. What is T’s position with respect to X?
  4. Only two people sit between U and W. X is second to the left of W. V and T are immediate neighbours of each other. II. T is to the immediate right of V. There are only two people between T and S. X is an immediate neighbour of S but not of V:

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question:

The convenience of online shopping is what I like best about it. Where else can you shop even at midnight wearing your night suit? You do not have to wait in a line or wait till the shop assistant is ready to help you with your purchases. It is a much better experience as compared to going to a retail store. — A consumer’s view.

  1. Which of the following can be a strong argument in favour of retail store owners?

(1) Online shopping portals offer a great deal of discounts which retail stores offer only during the sale season (2) One can compare a variety of products online which cannot be done at retail stores (3) Many online shopping portals offer the ‘cash on delivery’ feature which is for those who are sveptical about online payments (4) Many consumers prefer shopping at retail stores which are nearer to their houses (5) In online shopping the customer may be deceived as he cannot touch the product he is paying for.

  1. Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An= inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)

(1) One can shop online only at night (2) Those who are not comfortable using computers can never enjoy the experience of online shopping (3) All retail stores provide shopping assistants to each and every customer (4) The consumer whose view is presented has shopped at retail stores as well as online (5) The customer whose view is presented does not have any retail stores in her vicinity

  1. Read the following information carefully and answer the given question:

Many manufacturing companies are now shifting base to the rural areas of the country as there is a scarcity of space in urban areas. Analysts say that this shift will not have a huge impact on the prices of the products manufactured by these companies as only about 30% consumers live in urban areas. Which of the following maybe a consequence of the given information?

(1) The prices of such products will decrease drastically in the urban areas (2) People living in urban areas will not be allowed to work in such manufacturing companies (3) These manufacturing companies had set-ups in the urban areas before shifting base (4) Those who had already migrated to the urban areas will not shift back to rural areas (5) The number of people migrating from rural to urban areas in search of jobs may reduce

  1. Read the following information carefully and answer the given question:

‘Pets are not allowed in the park premises’ – A notice put up at the park entrance by the authority that is responsible for maintenance of the park.

Which of the following can be an assumption according to the given information? (An assumption is something that is supposed or taken for granted)

(1) At least some people who visit the park have pets. (2) This is the only park which does not allows pets (3) People who ignored this notice were fined (4) There are more than one entrances to the park (5) Many people have now stopped visiting the park

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Despite repeated announcements that mobile phones were not allowed in the examination hall, three students were caught with their mobile phones.

(A) Mobile phones nowadays have a lot of features and it is easy to cheat with their help (B) The invigilator must immediately confiscate the mobile phones and ask the students to leave the exam hall immediately. (C) Mobile phones are very expensive and leaving them in bags outside the exam hall is not safe. (D) There have been incidents where students who left the exam hall early stole the mobile phones kept in the bags of the students who were writing the exam (E) The school authorities must ask the students to leave their phones in the custody of the invigilator before the exam in order to avoid thefts of mobile phones (F) None of the other students were carrying their phones in the exam hall.

  1. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and (D) may be a strong argument in favour of, the three students who were caught with the mobile phone?

(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) and (B) (3) Both (C) and (D) (4) Only (C) (5) Both (B and (D)

  1. Which of the following among (A), (B), (E) and (F) may be the reason behind the school making such announcements before the exam?

(1) Only (B) (2) Both (B) and (E) (3) Only (F) (4) Only (A) (5) Both (E) and (A)

  1. Which of the following among (A), (B), (D) and (F) can be an immediate course of action for the invigilator?

(1) Only (B) (2) Both (A) and (D) (3) Only (A) (4) Both (D) and (F) (5) Only (F)

 

Answer

  1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (5) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (2)
  2. (5) 12. (5) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (2)
  3. (1) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (3) 29. (2) 30. (*)
  4. (1) 32. (4) 33. (5) 34. (2) 35. (5) 36. (1) 37. (5) 38. (5) 39. (5) 40. (4)
  5. (5) 42. (1) 43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (1)

HNBGU B.Ed Entrance Exam

HNBGU B.Ed Entrance Exam

HNBGU B.Ed Entrance Exam 2015 Notification

Hemwati Nandan Bahuguna Garhwal University (HNBGU), Srinagar ( Garhwal), Uttarakhand has issued the Notification of B.Ed Entrance Exam 2015 for the admission in B.Ed program for the session 2015-17.The entrance exam will be held on 14 June 2015. Name of the Exam: HNBGU B.Ed Entrance Exam 2014

Eligibility: 
1. General category- graduate or Post graduate with 50% marks from a recognized university.

2. OBC/SC/ST- 45% in Graduation or Post Graduation from a recognized university.

Examcenters-
Gopeshwar/ Gairsain/ Talwari/ Karnprayag/ Agastyamuni/ Shrinagar/Pauri/ Vedikhal/jairikhal/Kotdwar/Nainidanda/NewTehri/Sendul(kemar)/Uttarkashi/Barkot/Rishikesh/Dehradun/Vikasnagar(Dakpathar)/Roorkie/Haridwar
Fees:

General/OBC-Rs.650/-
SC/ST/PH-Rs.325/-

ImportantDates:

Starting dates of online Application forms:                                  28 April, 2015
Last date of Online mission:                                                                   20 May, 2015
Last date of Fees submission:                                                                15 May, 2015
Last Date of B.Ed Entrance Exam 2015:                                             14 June, 2015

Last date of submission of hard copy of application to University: 25 May, 2015

For official Press note for the B.E.D Entrance Exam 2015 Click here-

http://allexamtips.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/04/b.ed-press-note-2015.pdf

PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS

PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS

PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS- ASSISTANT COMMANDANT EXAM 2014

UPSC has released notification for the post of Assistant Commandant Exam 2015 (Group A) in the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) viz. Border Security Force (BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Central Industrial Security Force(CISF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB).. The written examination will be held on July 12, 2015.

We suggest the aspirants to start preparation for the Assistant Commandant Exam 2015 right after they complete their application process so that they can cover the complete syllabus few days before the examination.

For preparing the Assistant Commandant exam 2015 conducted by UPSC, one must go through previous year question papers with utmost sincerity. This will be highly helpful for the candidates in assessing-

  • The pattern of examination for Assistant Commandant Exam.
  • Type of questions being asked from different subjects and topics and then prepare accordingly for the upcoming exams.
  • Practising the previous year papers will help them in time management during the exam.
  • Candidates can assess their level of preparation in comparison to the actual exam.

Find below the Previous Year Question Paper of Assistant Commandant Exam 2014.

Paper I: General Ability and Intelligence

Click here –http://allexamtips.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/04/Previous-Paper-UPSC-CAPF-AC-Exam-2014-General-Ability-and-Intelligence.pdf

Paper II: General Studies, Essay and Comprehension

Click here –http://allexamtips.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/04/Previous-Paper-UPSC-CAPF-AC-Exam-2014-General-Studies-Essay-and-Comprehension.pdf

For UPSC Assistant Commandant Exam 2015 notification

Click here-http://allexamtips.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/04/CAPF-2015-ENGLISH.pdf

ASSISTANT COMMANDANT EXAM- UPSC

ASSISTANT COMMANDANT EXAM- UPSC

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will hold a Written Examination on 12th July, 2015 for recruitment of Assistant Commandant (Group A) in the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) viz. Border Security Force(BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Central Industrial Security Force(CISF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB).The Examination will be held in accordance with the Rules for the Examination published by Ministry of Home Affairs in the Gazette of India dated 25th April, 2015.

The tentative number of vacancies to be filled on the results of the examination is as follows:

(i) BSF                                      28

(ii) CRPF                                94

(iii) CISF                                 37

(iv) ITBP                                107

(v) SSB                                    38

 

Total                                      304

The number of vacancies mentioned above is liable to alteration. Reservation will be given effect to as per policy of the Govt. 10% of the vacancies are earmarked for ex-servicemen.

Selection Procedure/Scheme: -

The Selection Procedure/Scheme of the Exam. will be as follows:

(i) Written Examination: The written examination to be conducted by Union Public Service Commission will be held on 12th July, 2015 and will comprise two papers. Paper I will be held from 10 a.m. to 12.00 Noon and Paper II will be held from 2.00p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Paper I : General Ability and Intelligence – 250 Marks

The questions in this paper will be of Objective (Multiple Answers) Type in which the questions will be set in English as well as Hindi.

Paper II: General Studies, Essay and Comprehension – 200 Marks

In this paper candidates will be allowed the option of writing the Essay Component in English or Hindi, but the medium of Precis Writing, Comprehension Components and other communications/language skills will be English only.

For complete notification click here-http://allexamtips.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/04/CAPF-2015-ENGLISH.pdf

SBI ASSOCIATE CLERK RESULT

SBI ASSOCIATE CLERK RESULT

Dear Candidates!

Good News,

SBI Associates Clerk Written result of online tests held in January/ February 2015 has been declared.

Interviews will commence from 11-05-2015. As vacancies of all Associate Banks have been clubbed Statewise, candidates are required to mention their preference of Banks, ONLINE ONLY, while downloading Call Letter and Bio-data for Interview from the Bank’s website www.sbi.co.in or www.statebankofindia.com from 27-04-2015 onwards.

Check the Roll Numbers of Candidates Shortlisted for Interview here-http://allexamtips.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/04/sbi-clerk.pdf

BEST of LUCK!!!

VACANCIES IN DISTRICT COOPERATIVE BANK

VACANCIES IN DISTRICT COOPERATIVE BANK

Applications have been invited for Group 1 (Senior Branch Manager), Group 2 (Junior Branch Manager) and Group 3 (Clerk/Cashier) posts in District Cooperative Banks of Uttarakhand. Details of vacancies for particular posts as per notification are as follows:-

Sl No Post&Payscale No of Posts General SC ST OBC
1 Senior Branch Manager (11500-32950) 14 08 06 - -
2 Junior Branch Manager(10050-28300) 66 38 17 03 08
3 Clerk/Cashier(8500-22550) 217 147 39 05 26

Application forms can be purchased between 08-05-2015 to 08-06-2015 from any of the Main Branch of District Cooperative Banks of Uttarakhand.

Fees Details: General Category andOBC-500, SC/ST/Physically Disabled-300

Eligibility:

1) Age- Not below 21 years and not above 42 years as on 01-01-2015.

Age Relaxation: SC/ST/OBC & Dependents Uttarakhand Freedom Fighters- Maximum 5 years.

Physically Disabled- 10 yeats

Retired Army men/Commissioned officers-3 years

Sports man (National/International Level)- 3 years

Note- The age relaxation is applicable only for permanent residents of Uttarakhand.

2) Educational Qualification- Graduation + Computer Operation working knowledge

3) Reservation- As per Uttarakhand orders, details can be find in Prospectus containing application.

4) Selection Process- Candidates will be selected on the basis of their performance in Written Exams only.

Expected Scheme of Written Examination:

Group 1 & Group 2 – Total 200 marks, Time-3 hours

  1. Part 1- 100 marks (General Knowledge)
  • History& Culture of Uttarakhand- 20
  • Maths-20
  • Indian Constitution-15
  • Reasoning-15
  • English language-20
  • Computer-10
  1. Aptitude Test (Like Bank PO paper)-100 marks

Group 3- Total 100 Marks, Time- 2 hours

  • General Studies- 25
  • Maths- 30
  • Reasonin- 20
  • Hindi & English- 15
  • Computer- 10

Negative Marking- ¼ for every wrong answer

Note- Minimum qualifying marks for General & OBC candidates-45% and for SC/ST- 33%

5) Exam Centers- Shrinagar (Garhwal), Rishikesh, Dehradun, Almora, Pithoragarh and Pantnagar.

LATEST CURRENT AFFAIRS FOR EXAMS

LATEST CURRENT AFFAIRS FOR EXAMS

नवीनतम (CURRENT AFFAIRS) करंट अफेयर्स- आगामी परीक्षाओं हेतु

वो अभ्यर्थी जो एसएससी ग्रेजुएट लेवल, एसआई, उत्तराखंड एसआई, रेलवे, संघ लोक सेवा आयोग और अन्य राज्य स्तर की प्रतियोगी परीक्षा के लिए की तैयारी कर रहे हैं, उन्हें महत्वपूर्ण प्रश्नो को सदैव याद करते रहना चाहिए जो पूर्व में भी पूछे जा चुके हैं क्योंकि ऐसे प्रश्नो के आगामी परीक्षाओं में भी बार बार आने की प्रबल सम्भावना होती है|

आपकी सुविधा हेतु हम ऐसे ही प्रश्नो के संग्रह की श्रृंखला के साथ आए हैं जो आगामी परीक्षाओं में आ सकते हैं|

बस इन प्रश्नो को याद कीजिये और परीक्षाओं में तनाव मुक्त हो जाइये!!!

  1. किसने दक्षिण अफ्रीका क्रिकेट टीम के गेंदबाजी कोच के पद से को इस्तीफा दे दिया?- तेज गेंदबाज एलेन डोनाल्ड
  2. भारत का पहला अंतरराष्ट्रीय वित्तीय सेवा केंद्र (आईएफएससी) का संचालन कहाँ शुरू हुआ?- गांधी नगर (गिफ्ट सिटी)
  3. किस भारतीय निशानेबाज ने अंतरराष्ट्रीय शूटिंग स्पोर्ट फेडरेशन के राइफल/पिस्टल वर्ल्ड कप में महिलाओं की 10 मीटर एयर राइफल प्रतियोगिता में कांस्य पदक जीता?- अपूर्वी चंदेला
  4. भारतीय कुश्ती महासंघ (डब्ल्यूएफआई) के अध्यक्ष के रूप में किसे निर्वाचित किया गया?- बृजभूषण शरण सिंह
  5. ब्रिटेन के मर्सिडीज चालक ………….. ने चीन में आयोजित फॉर्मूला 1 का चीनी ग्रां. प्री. खिताब जीत लिया?- लुईस हैमिल्टन
  6. ऑस्ट्रेलिया को किसने हराकर पुरुषों का सुल्तान अजलान शाह कप हाकी टूर्नामेंट जीता?- न्यूजीलैंड
  7. नासा ने किस क्षुद्रग्रह का नाम 2014 की नोबेल शांति पुरस्कार विजेता मलाला युसुफ़ज़ई पर रखा?- क्षुद्रग्रह 316,201
  8. 13वां संयुक्त राष्ट्र अपराध रोकथाम और आपराधिक कानून सम्मेलन- 2015 का उद्घाटन कहाँ हुआ?- कतर की राजधानी दोहा में
  9. किस भारतीय शूटर ने अंतरराष्ट्रीय निशानेबाजी खेल महासंघ (आईएसएसएफ) द्वारा आयोजित राइफल / पिस्टल विश्व कप, दक्षिण कोरिया में 10 मीटर एयर पिस्टल पुरुष स्पर्धा के फाइनल में कांस्य पदक जीता?- जीतू राय
  10. एम वीरप्पा मोइली की वह कन्नड़ कविता जिसके लिए उन्हें वर्ष 2014 के सरस्वती सम्मान हेतु चुना गया?- ‘रामायण महान्वेषण’
  11. जेके कंपनी समूह के अध्यक्ष किसे नियुक्त किया गया?- भरत हरि सिंघानिया
  12. केंद्र सरकार ने किस अंतरराष्ट्रीय गैर सरकारी संगठन (एनजीओ) के विदेशी सहायता लेने पर रोक लगा दी?- ‘ग्रीनपीस’
  13. किस फिल्म अभिनेता को ‘विंग्स फार लाइफ वर्ल्ड रन’ के ब्रांड एंबेसेडर नियुक्त किया गया?- आयुष्मान खुराना
  14. राष्ट्रपति प्रणव मुखर्जी ने भारत के निर्वाचन आयोग का मुख्य चुनाव आयुक्त नियुक्त किया?- डॉ. नसीम जैदी को
  15. पुस्तक ‘फेसेस एंड प्लेसेस’ के लेखक – प्रो. दीपक नायर
  16. भारत की सबसे कम उम्र की तीरंदाज कौन बनीं- डॉली शिवानी चेरुकुरी
  17. 62वें राष्ट्रीय फिल्म पुरस्कार के तहत सर्वश्रेष्ठ हिंदी फिल्म किसे चुना गया- ‘क्वीन’
  18. किस राज्य में गुटखा बिक्री को गैर जमानती अपराध घोषित किया गया- महाराष्ट्र
  19. किस देश को फीफा ने ‘फीफा महिला विश्व कप-2019’ की मेजबानी सौंपी- फ्रांस
  20. किस उद्योगपति की अध्यक्षता में भारतीय रेल के नवाचार परिषद ‘कायाकल्प’ का गठन किया गया- रतन टाटा
  21. किस वैश्विक रेटिंग एजेंसी ने भारत की क्रेटिड रेटिंग में सुधार की घोषणा की है ? – ‘मूडीज’
  22. ‘साहित्य शिरोमणि’ से किसे सम्मानित किया गया?- कवि डॉ. गोपाल दास ‘नीरज’ एवं साहित्यकार डॉ. उदय प्रताप सिंह
  23. विश्व महिला शतरंज चैम्पियनशिप में कांस्य पदक किसने जीता?- द्रोनावल्ली हरिका
  24. भारत के पहले साइबर सुरक्षा प्रमुख किसे नियुक्त किया गया है?- गुलशन राय
  25. भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक बीमा क्षेत्र में प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश (एफडीआई) की सीमा को मौजूदा 26 प्रतिशत से बढ़ाकर कितने प्रतिशत करने के लिए अधिसूचना जारी की?- 49 प्रतिशत
  26. भारतीय उद्योग परिसंघ (सीआईआई) का अध्यक्ष किसे नियुक्त किया गया है?- सुमित मजूमदार को
  27. किस कम्पनी ने मोबाइल से जुड़े लेन-देन करने वाली वेबसाइट फ्रीचार्ज का अधिग्रहण कर लिया?- स्नैपडील
  28. प्रधानमंत्री नरेंद्र मोदी ने 20000 करोड़ रुपए के शुरुआती कोष के साथ किस बैंक को स्थापित किया?- मुद्रा बैंक
  29. मुद्रा का अर्थ -‘माइक्रो यूनिट्स डेवलपमेंट फंड रिफाइनेंस एजेंसी’
  30. इसरो उपग्रह केंद्र बंगलुरु, कर्नाटक का निदेशक किसे नियुक्त किया गया है?- डॉ मायिलसामी अन्नादुर
  31. आईपीएल संचालन परिषद के अध्यक्ष किसे नियुक्त किया गया है?- राजीव शुक्ला
  32. किस सरकार ने शहरी गरीबों को रियायती दर पर भोजन उपलब्ध कराने के लिए “आहार योजना” का शुभारंभ किया?- ओडिशा
  33. जासूसी के आरोप में पेरू की प्रधानमंत्री जिन्हे बर्खास्त किया गया?- अना जारा
  34. मिस्र की एकेडमी ऑफ आर्ट्स ने किस भारतीय फिल्म अभिनेता को डॉक्टरेट की उपाधि से सम्मानित किया?- अमिताभ बच्चन
  35. सिक्किम उच्च न्यायालय के मुख्य न्यायाधीश किसे नियुक्त किया गया?- न्यायमूर्ति सुनील कुमार सिन्हा
  36. आंध्र प्रदेश मंत्रिमंडल ने किस को राज्य की नई राजधानी के रुप में मंजूरी प्रदान की?- अमरावती
  37. किस टेनिस खिलाड़ी ने टेनिस करियर का 500 वां मैच जीता ?- ब्रिटेन के एंडी मरे
  38. ‘श्रीमद् भागवत गीता चैंपियंस लीग’ का खिताब किस ने जीता? – मरियम आसिफ सिद्दीकी ने
  39. वर्ष 2014-15 के दौरान ‘स्वच्छ भारत मिशन’ लागू करने में कौन सबसे आगे है ?- गुजरात
  40. विप्रो के मुख्य व्यापार अधिकारी के पद से किस ने इस्तीफा दिया?- सतीशचंद्र डोरेस्वामी ने
  41. अंतरराष्ट्रीय रंगमंच दिवस (International Theatre Day) को पूरे विश्व में कब मनाया गया?- 27 मार्च 2015
  42. विश्व की सबसे वृद्ध महिला जिनका 117 वर्ष की उम्र में निधन हो गया?- मिसाओ ओकावा
  43. आईसीसी एकदिवसीय क्रिकेट विश्व कप 2015 के ‘प्लेयर ऑफ द टूर्नामेंट’ से किसे सम्मानित किया गया ?- मिशेल स्टार्क
  44. साइना नेहवाल ने किसे पराजित करके इंडियन ओपन सुपर सीरीज बैडमिंटन चैंपियन 2015 का खिताब जीता?- थाइलैंड की रातनचोक इंतानोन
  45. नार्वे की विज्ञान एवं साहित्य अकादमी ने वर्ष 2015 के एबेल पुरस्कार (Able Prize) से किसे सम्मानित किया गया?- जॉन एफ नैश जूनिअर और
    लुइस निरेनबर्ग.
  46. रेल मंत्रालय ने रेलवे बोर्ड के मौजूदा सार्वजनिक-निजी भागीदारी (पीपीपी) प्रकोष्ठ के कामकाज की समीक्षा के लिए किसके नेतृत्व में समिति गठित की?- अजय शंकर
  47. किस कंपनी ने ‘हेप्सविर’ ब्रांड नाम से हैपेटाइटिस सी के इलाज के लिए जेनेरिक दवा सोफोसबुविर लांच की?- सिप्ला लिमिटेड.
  48. मामलों के शीघ्र निपटारे के लिए वाणिज्यिक अदालतों की स्थापना करने वाला देश का पहला न्यायालय कौन सा है?- दिल्ली उच्च न्यायालय
  49. पुस्तक ‘फेसेस एंड प्लेसेस’ किसने लिखी है?- प्रो. दीपक नायर
  50. केन्द्र सरकार ने महाराष्ट्र के सूखा प्रभावित क्षेत्रों हेतु कितने रुपये मंजूर किये?- 2000 करोड़
  51. मध्यप्रदेश सरकार द्वारा प्रथम राष्ट्रीय कवि प्रदीप सम्मान से किसे सम्मानित किया गया?- सुप्रसिद्ध गीतकार और कवि गोपालदास नीरज
  52. बेंजामिन नेतन्याहू जिन्होंने वर्ष 2015 के इसराइल के आम चुनाव में जीत दर्ज की, किस पार्टी के हैं?- लिकुड पार्टी के
  53. किस बैंक ने ग्राहकों द्वारा भारत में किसी भी व्यक्ति को तत्काल धन भेजने की सुविधा प्रदान करने हेतु मोबाइल एप्प चिल्लर शुरु की?- एचडीएफसी
  54. भारत में हेपेटाइटिस बी उन्मूलन अभियान के ब्रांड एंबेसडर किसे नियुक्त किया गया?- अमिताभ बच्चन
  55. केंद्र सरकार ने सभी केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों के पुलिस बल में महिलाओं को कितना प्रतिशत आरक्षण देने का फैसला किया?- 33%
  56. किसने शेष भारत को पराजित कर ईरानी ट्रॉफी क्रिकेट टूर्नामेंट जीता?- कर्नाटक ने
  57. वर्ष 2015 का विश्व जल दिवस (22 मार्च 2015)का विषय क्या था ? -‘पानी और सतत विकास’ (Water and Sustainable Development)
  58. लाडली वॉइस ऑफ द सेंचुरी पुरस्कार से किसे सम्मानित किया गया? -गायिका लता मंगेशकर
  59. अगले तीन वर्ष के लिए विश्व भारती विश्वविद्यालय (प. बंगाल) का कुलाधिपति किसे नियुक्त किया गया- प्रधानमंत्री नरेंद्र मोदी
  60. तीन दिवसीय ‘अंतरराष्ट्रीय आतंकवाद विरोधी सम्मेलन’ संपन्न हुआ?- जयपुर, राजस्थान में
  61. आईसीसी क्रिकेट विश्व कप के इतिहास का सर्वोच्च स्कोर नाबाद 237 रन किसने बनाए- न्यूजीलैंड के बल्लेबाज मार्टिन गुप्टिल ने
  62. जिम्बाब्वे के किस क्रिकेटर ने अंतरराष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट से संन्यास लिया?- ब्रेंडन टेलर
  63. दुनिया भर में विश्व गौरैया दिवस कब मनाया गया?- 20 मार्च 2015 को
  64. आपदा जोखिम में कमी लाने हेतु तीसरा संयुक्त राष्ट्र विश्व शिखर सम्मेलन कहाँ आयोजित?- जापान के सेनडाई में
  65. किस राज्य की टीम ने तमिलनाडु को हराकर रणजी ट्रॉफी 2015 जीती ?- कर्णाटक
  66. प्रधान मंत्री नरेंद्र मोदी ने हाल में किस राज्य से मृदा स्वस्थ्य कार्ड की योजना की शुरआत की ?- राजस्थान से
  67. दुनिया का पहला विश्व महासागर विज्ञानं कांग्रेस कहाँ आयोजित किया गया ?- कोच्चि केरल
  68. अखिल भारतीय फुटबॉल संघ ने भारतीय पुरुषों की फुटबॉल टीम के किस खिलाडी को 2014 का सर्वश्रेष्ठ फुटबॉल खिलाडी चुना ?- सुनील छेत्री
  69. क्रोएशिया की पहली महिला प्रधान मंत्री के रूप में किसने शपत ली?- कोलिण्डा ग्रेबर कितारोविक
  70. नासा के केप्लर मिशन के सहयोग से किस एक नए गृह की खोज की गई है?- केप्लर 432 बी
  71. सूर्य का और गहराई से अध्ध्य्यन करने के लिए डीप स्पेस सेटलाइट को किस रॉकेट की मदद से लांच किया गया ?- स्पेस ऐक्स फालकन ९ रॉकेट ,
  72. क्रिकेट विश्व कप में लगातार चार शतक बनाने वाले विश्व के पहले बल्लेबाज कौन हैं- कुमार संगकारा
  73. विश्व गुर्दा दिवस (WKD) को विश्व स्तर पर कब मनाया गया? 12 मार्च 2015
  74. के भास्करन जिनका 80 वर्ष की आयु में मुंबई में निधन हो गया, किस छेत्र से सम्बंधित थे?- खेल पत्रकार
  75. अमेरिका के राष्ट्रपति बराक ओबामा ने पाकिस्तान में अगले राजदूत के रूप में किसे नामित किया है?- डेविड हेल

SBI CLERK GK QUESTIONS

SBI CLERK GK QUESTIONS 2014-15

Aspirants preparing for UPSC, SSC, IBPS, RRB clerk/P.O, SBI Clerk/P.O, Management Trainee, and other competitive exams can easily find here the latest updates about Current Affairs, General Knowledge topics, previous papers of latest bank Probationary Officer /Clerk exams , IBPS P.O/Clerk exams, previous papers of SSC, UPSC, UKPSC and other exams. Allexamtips is your one stop destination for all kinds of General awareness & current Affairs questions generally being asked in UPSC, SSC, IBPS, RRB clerk/P.O, SBI Clerk/P.O, etc. Just read all the General awareness, General knowledge & Banking awareness Questions and answers available in allexamtips.com and achieve success in your dream job…

GK & Computer Questions 

1 Malaysia currency- Ringgit

2 Who did hat trick goal in foot ball world cup- Thomas Muller (Germany) score first hattrick of the FIFA World Cup Tournament

3 Mynamar capital- Naypyidaw

4 In LoK Sabha elections if any candidate win two seats so in what duration of time he has to leave one seat – 14 days

5 FIFA 2014 Macot Name- Fuleco (The name Fuleco is a portmanteau of the words “Futebol” (“Football”) and “Ecologia” (“Ecology”)

6 Indian Overseas minister- Sushma Swaraj

7 IBSA full form – India, Brazil, South & Africa

8 World Autism day- 2 April

9 World aids day celebrated on – 1 December

10 Chemical and fertilizer cabinet minister- Ananth Kumar

11Beiji oil refinery located in- Iraq

12PC stands for- Personal Computer

13 Flipkart acquire which online shop- Myntra.com

14 Currency of Italy- Euro

15 Head of SIT Committee on black money-  MB Shah

16 Capital of Brazil -Brasilia

17 “Casual vacancy” written by- J K Rowling

18 Iraq currency- Dinar

19 What is Window Vista- Operating System

20 Who regulate Monetary policy- RBI

21 Budget is in which article- Article-112

22 Full form of ASCII – American Standard Code for Information Interchange

23 Kanyakumari formerly known as – Cape Comorin

24 Devices that attached are to computer from outside  – Peripheral devices

25 Who won 3 medals in ISSF world cup in Munich – Jitu Rai

26Who is Richest Player in FIFA- Cristiano Ronaldo

27 OPEC has how much percent of total oil – 81%

28 Country having least global peace index – Syria

29 Tata group joined which airlines- Air Asia

30 Commercial papers issued in what multiples- Rs.5 lakh or multiples thereof.

31Recently Navaratna status given to- National Building Construction Corporation & Engineers India Ltd (EIL)

32 World economic forum held in- Abuja (Nigeria)

33 Headquarter of Infosys- Bangalore

34 Best ranked IIT among BRICS top universities 2014- IIT Delhi

35 Salarjung museum located in which state- Hyderabad, Telangana

36 Committee on financial inclusion- Nachiket Mor Committee

37 Minister of Social Justice and empowerment- Thawar Chand Gehlot

38 Bhartiya Mahila Bank Chairman- Usha Ananthasubramanium

39 Banks Nationalization year- 1969

40 Capital of Argentina- Buenos Aires

41 Official Currency of Indonesia- Indonesian Rupiah

42 Vijay Sheshadri won Pulitzer prize for- “3 Sections”

43 Constituency of Nitin Gadkari- Nagpur

44 Press freedom day- 3 May

45 RBI  establishment year- 1935

46 Food & Consumer Affairs minister- Ram Vilas Paswan

47 World Tourism Day is celebrated on- 27 September

48 Gillette cup is associated with which sports- Cricket

49 Kaveri river water dispute between which states- Karnataka & Tamil Nadu

50 Full form of CD-R- Compact Disc Recordable

51 MS word is a type of- Application Software

52 Printer is an ……device- Output device

53 Full forms PKI- Public Key Infrastructure

54 Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF) is maintained with- RBI

55 Brand ambassador of National Games- Sachin Tendulkar

56 Aim of RBI to allow 10 years to open savings account- To encourage children to start saving early

57 Kepler 8B is- the fifth of the first five exoplanets discovered by NASA’s

58 First women judge of Pakistan- Ashraf Jehan

59 What  is Brazuca- Brazuca- The official match ball of the 2014 FIFA World Cup
60 To erase from left hand side of a word we use-Backspace

MULTIPURPOSE POWER PROJECTS

MULTIPURPOSE POWER PROJECTS

वो अभ्यर्थी जो एसएससी ग्रेजुएट लेवल, एसआई, उत्तराखंड एसआई, रेलवे, संघ लोक सेवा आयोग और अन्य राज्य स्तर की प्रतियोगी परीक्षा के लिए की तैयारी कर रहे हैं, उन्हें महत्वपूर्ण प्रश्नो को सदैव याद करते रहना चाहिए जो पूर्व में भी पूछे जा चुके हैं क्योंकि ऐसे प्रश्नो के आगामी परीक्षाओं में भी बार बार आने की प्रबल सम्भावना होती है|

आपकी सुविधा हेतु हम ऐसे ही प्रश्नो के संग्रह की श्रृंखला के साथ आए हैं जो आगामी परीक्षाओं में आ सकते हैं|

बस इन प्रश्नो को याद कीजिये और परीक्षाओं में तनाव मुक्त हो जाइये!!!

बहुद्देशीय परियोजना राज्य नदी
भीमा परियोजना महाराष्ट्र पवना एवं कृष्णा नदी
हीराकुंड जल विद्युत् परियोजना उड़ीसा महानदी
सरदार सरोवर परियोजना मध्य प्रदेश, महाराष्ट्र,राजस्थान,गुजरात नर्मदा नदी
नर्मदा सागर परियोजना मध्य प्रदेश नर्मदा नदी
चूखा जल विद्युत् परियोजना भारत और भूटान वांचू नदी
इंदिरा गाँधी नहर परियोजना राजस्थान रावी, व्यास, सतलज
फरक्का परियोजना पश्चिम बंगाल गंगा
दामोदर घाटी परियोजना पश्चिम बंगाल व बिहार दामोदर नदी
इडुक्की परियोजना केरल पेरियार नदी
श्रावती परियोजना कर्नाटक श्रावती नदी
थीन बांध पंजाब रावी नदी
भाखड़ा नागल बांध परियोजना हरियाणा,राजस्थान सतलज नदी
तुलबुल परियोजना भारत-पाकिस्तान झेलम नदी
टनकपुर बांध परियोजना भारत और नेपाल महाकाली नदी (भारत)
सलाल पनबिजली परियोजना जम्मू एवं कश्मीर चिनाब
पोचम्पाद परियोजना आंध्र प्रदेश गोदावरी
कोसी परियोजना बिहार (भारत -नेपाल) कोसी नदी
सोन परियोजना बिहार सोन नदी
काकरापार परियोजना गुजरात ताप्ती
उकाई परियोजना गुजरात ताप्ती
माही परियोजना गुजरात माही
साबरमती परियोजना गुजरात (मेहसाना) साबरमती
गाँधी सागर परियोजना मध्य प्रदेश चम्बल
राणा प्रताप सागर परियोजना राजस्थान चम्बल
जवाहर सागर परियोजना राजस्थान चम्बल
रिहन्द परियोजना उत्तर प्रदेश रिहंद नदी
शारदा प्रोजेक्ट उत्तर प्रदेश घाघरा- शारदा
माताटीला बांध परियोजना उत्तर प्रदेश बेतवा
टिहरी बांध परियोजना उत्तराखंड भागीरथी
नागार्जुन सागर परियोजना आंध्र प्रदेश कृष्णा
तुंगभद्रा आंध्र प्रदेश, कर्नाटक तुंगभद्रा
निजाम सागर आंध्र प्रदेश तुंगभद्रा
शिव समुद्रम कर्नाटक कावेरी नदी

EXPECTED CUT OFF UTTARAKHAND SI EXAM

EXPECTED CUT OFF UTTARAKHAND SI EXAM

The Uttarakhand SI examination for the recruitment of 354 posts of Sub Inspectors in Civil Police, LIU and PAC was held on April 5 2015 on eight centres across the State. The official cut off mark and answer key of UK SI Exam 2015 will be available on uttarakhandpolice.uk.gov.in very soon.

Now the students may be anxiously waiting for the expected cut off marks of Uttarakhand SI Exam held on April 5, 2015.

Considering the clash of two important papers viz. UK SI exam 2015 conducted by Uttarakhand Police department and LT (Pravakta) Exam conducted by UKPSC on April 5, 2015, it is expected that the competition on both the exams would be slightly lower as there are thousands of common candidates who would have appeared in both the exams if this clash of dates had not been there. But it’s also worth noting that the competition among rest of the candidates will be much stiffer as only dedicated candidates would be fighting in both Uttarakhand SI Exam and LT (Pravakta) Exam.

The expected cut-off for General Category (male) – 210/300

The expected cut-off for General Category (female) – 170/300

The expected Section wise marks are as under:-

Hindi General awareness Maths              and Reasoning
75-80/100 55-60/75             75-80/125

 Hindi and General awareness sections were good in comparison to the previous Uttarakhand SI exam of 2007 while the Maths and Reasoning sections comprising of 125 questions in total were reasonably tough this time and will play deciding role in overall merit. This paper needed good command over maths and reasoning section, so the Maths background students have definitely upper hand over the Arts Background students.

Those who have scored 5marks (+/-) near the above mentioned expected cut-off should start preparation for 9 month training in Uttarakhand Police!!!

Exams are fun not fear


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